0 votes
by (2.9k points)
Consider several facts:

(1) The Prophecy of Isaiah declared that the Christ would be born of a virgin.

(2) The Gospel Accounts testify that Christ Jesus was born of a virgin.

(3) The Scripture repeatedly speaks of the Christ as the Son of David, and that the Son of David would rule, seated upon the Throne of David.

(4) The Scripture testifies to the fact that the Throne or Dynasty of David fell, circa 586 B.C.

(5) The Scripture states that, at the time of the Incarnation, the fallen Dynasty of David had not been revived.

(6) The genealogy recorded in the Gospel Account of Matthew establishes the fact that Joseph, the legal father of Jesus, was heir to the Throne of David.

The Protestant Pulpit teaches that the virgin birth was necessary for Jesus to be free of sin, because the Sin Nature is transmitted genetically, through the sperm of the father, and that man is a sinner because he has a Sin Nature.  But that teaching is Talmudic Jewish myth.

The Scripture declares the reason for which the virgin birth was absolutely necessary; that reason has nothing whatsoever to do with the Protestant concept of "Sin Nature".  What, then, according to the Scripture, is the necessity for the virgin birth?

Please log in or register to answer this question.

Welcome to Study Bible Q&A, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of the community.