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I am truly shocked how quickly and easily individuals will support changing the scriptures and honoring translators who have already added, subtracted and/or corrupted the bible! There are no biblical verses that request us to pray using a supposed name of The Almighty. Jesus instructs us to pray to God using the title Heavenly Father (Matthew 6:6, 9). We can not even find a scripture that states we should use a single name or title to address The Eternal. Yes, there are verses that state God has a name, but we can reference any biblical cyclopedic and find multiply titles and names for God throughout the bible. Psalms addresses many of these verses where the psalmist requests us to praise God's name, but in Psalm 19:1, David addresses God as “El” or The Almighty, while in verse 7 he addresses God as “YHVH” or Self-Existent [note: this term and it's corruption (Jehovah) will be addressed later]. It is obvious that David (in Psalm 19) is referring to God as “El” in relation to the creation and “YHVH” in relation to laws, statutes, precepts, commands and ordinances. When we study the Hebrew term that was translated “name” (H8034 shm-k) in the Psalms, we arrive at this definition: an appellation (name or title), as a mark or memorial of individuality, by implication honor, authority or character, whose abode is in the higher ether (heavens) where the celestial bodies revolve.  There is no reference that a single name or title is to be used. There is an interesting definition of the word “individual” which states: distinguished by specific attributes or identifying traits, so trying to imply that God or His Son commands or demands that we use a single name or title to address them is far from the truth and could be considered deceptive!

The translation of the Ancient Scriptures of Israel (the Old Testament) that most bibles use today really isn't that ancient!  This translation can be dated to approximately 800 AD and was composed by a group known as the Masoretic Jews. This record is the only existing representation of the Old Testament in Hebrew (other than the Dead Sea Scrolls). The oldest fragments date from the 9th century AD, but the oldest complete texts comes from the 10th and 11th centuries AD. However, the Hebrew text that it contains is clearly not the original Hebrew, nor even the Hebrew that was in use in the 1st century AD. When the Masoretes added vowel points to the text of the Hebrew Bible (O.T.) they gave the word YHVH vowels very similar to that of Adonai (Lord). Tradition claims this is to remind the reader to say Adonai (Lord) instead of YHVH.  Later a medieval Catholic Franciscan, philosopher, theologian and Orientatlist (Petrus Galatinus—1460-1540) mis-took these vowel substitutions for the actual spelling of YHVH and transliterated the name God literally and incorrectly as Jehovah. Its use has become widespread throughout the Christian community. It is utter nonsense to think we could label “The Creator of all things” with a single expression or title. This idea can only be man made! The Ancient of Days tells us that man's wisdom is foolishness to Him (1 Cor. 3:19). We are also told that The Father expects us to worship Him in spirit and truth (John 4:23). Jesus tells us to pray to the “Heavenly Father” in a manner outlined in Matthew 6. We should do this in a respectful and humble way.

Yes, there is much more to this topic, but the bible tells us that from Adam to Moses, God was referred to as “El” (The Almighty), from Moses to Jesus “Yahweh or Eternal” (Exodus 6:3) and from Jesus forward “Heavenly Father” along with many other names, expressions and titles. There is none other like the Supreme Being, thus a single name or title would not be appropriate!
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his fathers name is IAM
+1 vote

 Inaccurate translating of Exodus 3:13 has led to a faulty understanding of this verse. In numerous Bibles, one can read the question: 'What is his name?,' as in Judges 13:17, when ManoAh wanted to know the name (that is, the pronunciation of the name) of the angel who came to meet him. On the other hand, the IsraElites really asked Moses (at Exodus 3:13), 'How is His Name?' – that is, 'What does His Name mean?' or 'What does His fame mean?' One can verify that in Hebrew, the interrogation 'what is,' or 'how is,' is 'mâ.' And 'who is,' is 'mî.' And there's a big difference between asking to know a name because one is ignorant of it (as in Ezra 5:4), and asking the meaning of a name that one already knows… as in Genesis 32:27, where the angel asks Jacob to remind him of the meaning of his name before he gave him a new name (IsraEl). Therefore, when Moses asked God: 'How is his name?' God gave the explanation 'I shall [prove to] be who (or what) I shall [prove to] be' (èhyèh ashèr èhyèh). Even here, regrettably, numerous translators are influenced by Greek philosophy on The Being as existing, which was developed by Plato in some of his works, including 'Parmenides.' For example, the Septuagint translated this passage as 'I am the Being (égô éimi o ôn in Greek),' or, 'I am He who is.' Yet Aquila's Translation (which is more faithful to Hebrew) translates this sentence as, 'I shall be: I shall be' (ésomai ésomai in Greek). As you can see; from a study on the translation of this sentence, the difficulty results from translators who want to explain the words by means of their personal beliefs, which are very often influenced by Greek philosophy; otherwise there is no difficulty. For example, one finds the word èhyèh just before Exodus 3:12 and just after Exodus 4:12, 15, and here translators have no problem translating it as 'I shall [prove to be] with you.' Moreover, the Talmud retains this explanation for the meaning of the Name. So, a better translation of Exodus 3:13, 14 would be: 'Then Moses said to God, Look, I'll go to the children of IsraEl and tell them that the God of our ancestors has sent me to you. But then they're going to ask, How is his name? So, what should I tell them? And God told Moses; I shall [prove to] be what I shall [prove to] be! Just tell the children of IsraEl that I shall [prove to] be has sent you.'

(Contributed material from a source other than myself)

 God actually has many names: Most High God (Gen. 14:18-22), Almighty God (Gen. 17:1-2), Everlasting God (Gen.21:33), Heavenly Father (Matt.6:26), The Only Potentate (1 Tim. 6:13-16), and many others! 

+2 votes
by (180 points)
Jesus responded to Satan's temptations at Matt 4:10 as follows: [YLT] Then saith Jesus to him, `Go--Adversary, for it hath been written, The Lord thy God thou shalt bow to, and Him only thou shalt serve.'  He was quoting Deut 10:20 which says  [YLT] `Jehovah thy God thou dost fear, Him thou dost serve, and to Him thou dost cleave, and by His name thou dost swear.

Some translations put Jehovah, Yahweh, or YHWH etc instead of Lord or LORD in the NT quotations.  Many bible verses describe Jehovah as being God's name so it would follow that this would be the name Jesus used in prayer to his Father.
Though your logic seems reasonable, would Jesus really address his Father by a name? This would be considered disrepectful in almost all cultures. But using a title such as: Father or God seems much more acceptable.
by (180 points)
Thanks for your interest in my comment.

You may be right.  Certainly he did use his Father's name, but whether he observed imperfect human culture to show respect to his Father in his personal communication the scriptures are silent.  They only show he addressed him as Father. I believe that Jesus, being perfect, and having a perfect relationship with his Father possibly put him in a position no imperfect human could comprehend.  This is a relationship that no human has ever experienced with their own father.  If the Psalmist and other writers, being imperfect, could address God in prayer using his name (e.g. Ps 3) then how much more so could Jesus, being perfect?  The question was "Since Jesus Prayed to his Father, what is his Father's Name?"  The scriptures show Jesus as knowing and using God's name, and they record the name he used, and I would suggest it would have been probably more respectful of him to use Jehovah’s name in prayer.
You say "certainly he did use his Father's name", but you've provided no evidence of that. All you've done is speculated that,

(a) because you interpret YHWH as the name of God, it is therefore the name of God

(b) because the Son hadn't been incarnated yet, YHWH was the name of the Father, and not the deity—despite the fact that there is every indication the Son was very much active in the life of Israel prior to his incarnation.

(c) Jesus departed from the first century custom of saying "Adonai" when reading scripture in almost every circumstance.

I would also like to draw your attention to anonymous of Jan 1's comment that it's simply far from clear that a unique entity which has no parallel would even bother needing a name: "Why do you ask my name", we can read in Judges 13:18, "seeing as it is wonderful?"

Perhaps, YHWH is the Lord's name, like mine is "Felix" or the queen's is "Elizabeth". But this is not in evidence yet despite simplistic interpretations of the Old Testament scripture.
by (180 points)
a) is not speculation or interpretation on my part, just a reading of the scriptures e.g. Isaiah 42:8
b) I'll be perfectly honest here, I have no idea what your point is.
c) Calls for speculation on your part that there was any such custom in the first century.
Judges quoted is a question asked of an angel, to which that angel replied 'It' is too wonderful for you to understand.  'It' confirming a name existed but the angel figured it was not necessary to share it.  On the other hand, the LORD God figured it important to reveal his own name repeatedly, and specifically, as in Isaiah 42:8 'I am Jehovah, this is my name' (YLT)
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