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asked by (790 points)
Has Anyone Ever Seen God?

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answered by (600 points)
The Bible tells us that no one has ever seen God (John 1:18) except the Lord Jesus Christ. In Exodus 33:20, God declares, “You cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live.” These Scriptures seem to contradict other Scriptures which describe various people “seeing” God. For example, Exodus 33:11 describes Moses speaking to God “face to face.” How could Moses speak with God “face to face” if no one can see God's face and live? In this instance, the phrase “face to face” is a figure of speech indicating they were in very close communion. God and Moses were speaking to each other as if they were two human beings having a close conversation.

In Genesis 32:30, Jacob saw God appearing as an angel; he did not truly see God. Samson’s parents were terrified when they realized they had seen God (Judges 13:22), but they had only seen Him appearing as an angel. Jesus was God in the flesh (John 1:1, 14) so when people saw Him, they were seeing God. So, yes, God can be “seen” and many people have “seen” God. At the same time, no one has ever seen God revealed in all His glory. In our fallen human condition, if God were to fully reveal Himself to us, we would be consumed and destroyed. Therefore, God veils Himself and appears in forms in which we can “see” Him. However, this is different than seeing God with all His glory and holiness displayed. People have seen visions of God, images of God, and appearances of God, but no one has ever seen God in all His fullness (Exodus 33:20).

commented by (790 points)
edited by
Nice job pjrizzo.However; Jesus our Lord is not God.He never said he was, he never wished to be.Jesus said,"Pray to the Father" in my name.Yes our Lord Jesus laid his life down for us.He did so, in obedience to his Father.That was, the will of God for Jesus.Hebrew 5:7-9
There is volumes to prove "Jesus is the Son of God" and not God himself .

Christ Jesus perfectly represented his Father, doing the works of his Father and speaking, not of his own originality, but the words of his Father. (Joh 10:37, 38; 12:50; 14:10, 11, 24) That is why Jesus could say, “He that has seen me has seen the Father also.”—Joh 14:9.

"I have come to do not my will, but the will of him that sent me" John 6:38
Mt 26:39And going a little way forward, he fell facedown, praying: “My Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass away from me. Yet, not as I will, but as you will.” John4:34, Jesus said to them: “My food is to do the will of him who sent me and to finish his work. John6:38, for  I have come down from heaven to do, not my own will, but the will of him who sent me. The Lord Jesus wants us to pray, not to him, but to his Father.The Bible is crystal clear on this all important subject.

Neighborly Love
commented by (600 points)
thank you for your important response, though with the wrong view of Jesus
 you present, I doubt we are brothers (see John 1:12).
      Not only does sacred Scripture repeatedly reveal the Deity of Jesus
 Christ, (see John 1, Col 1, Heb 1, 2 Pet 1, Rev 1, 4, 5, 22), but numerous
 times Jesus himself, in his incarnation, made it clear just who he was.  He
 forgave sin (see Mark 2:5, John 8:11) but he accepted worship (see Matt
 2:11, 21:9, Mark 16:1, Matt 28:9, John 20:28 and others), but he actually
 claimed to be God (see John 8:58 and others).  He made is so clear that he
 was Deity, the Jews wanted to stone him because "he claimed to be God" (see
 John 35).
      The Jesus that you have imagined does not exist, therefore can not
 save.  If you are trusting in anything but the One, True, Lamb of God who
 takes away the sin of the world, God Himself will tell you "I never knew
 you, depart from me into everlasting destruction" (Matt 7, 2 Thess 1). I
 pray the Lord grant you eyes to see the Truth.
 in Christ
commented by (790 points)
Dear Pjrizzo,
   The irony here is that we both love Christ Jesus but, you view him as God, I view Jesus as, " the son of God".Two different and distinct individuals.God is not divisible by 3.If he was, the trinity would be explained in the Holy writings.It Is Not.Almighty God's claims are different than his Sons.If you humor me for a fiew minutes, you will see my point.Logically, God does not pray to anyone.Would you agree to that?Is'nt it true, Jesus prayed to God?God does not pray to Jesus, does he?If Jesus wanted us to pray to him, he would have said so.He didn't, did he?Do you see the logic?When you pray, do you pray to Jesus in God's name.Or do you pray to God, in Jesus name.Jesus did not send God to die for our Sins.Rather, God sent Jesus to die for our Sins.What I am saying to you, is basic, and pretty clear.Do you see the point?If you want to pray to Jesus, in the name of the Father or anyone else? That's Fine.But, the holy writings don't support that.God has a name, and he wants us to call upon that name.He also said, "there is no one else"Isaiah 45:5,18.Psalms 83:18.Isaiah 42:8.Please read from a literal translation from this forum, and you will see, it is JEHOVAH who is most high.Psalms 83:18.Jesus our Lord, is the lamb of God.The one God sacrificed in our behalf,so that we might get saved.I will respond to the scriptures you used, if you stay on track and respond to the scriptures that I used.
commented by (790 points)
Dear Djrizzo...(In addition)

Does the Bible agree with those who teach that the Father and the Son are not separate and distinct individuals?
Matt. 26:39, RS: “Going a little farther he [Jesus Christ] fell on his face and prayed, ‘My Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will, but  as thou wilt.’” (If the Father and the Son were not distinct individuals, such a prayer would have been meaningless. Jesus would have been praying to himself, and his will would of necessity have been the Father’s will.)
John 8:17, 18, RS: “[Jesus answered the Jewish Pharisees:] In your law it is written that the testimony of two men is true; I bear witness to myself, and the Father who sent me bears witness to me.” (So, Jesus definitely spoke of himself as being an individual separate and distinct from the Father.)
Does the Bible teach that all who are said to be part of the Trinity are eternal, none having a beginning?
Col. 1:15, 16, RS: “He [Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation; for in him all things were created, in heaven and on earth.” In what sense is Jesus Christ “the first-born of all creation”? (1) Trinitarians say that “first-born” here means prime, most excellent, most distinguished; thus Christ would be understood to be, not part of creation, but the most distinguished in relation to those who were created. If that is so, and if the Trinity doctrine is true, why are the Father and the holy spirit not also said to be the firstborn of all creation? But the Bible applies this expression only to the Son. According to the customary meaning of “firstborn,” it indicates that Jesus is the eldest in Jehovah’s family of sons. (2) Before Colossians 1:15, the expression “the firstborn of” occurs upwards of 30 times in the Bible, and in each instance that it is applied to living creatures the same meaning applies—the firstborn is part of the group. “The firstborn of Israel” is one of the sons of Israel; “the firstborn of Pharaoh” is one of Pharaoh’s family; “the firstborn of beast” are themselves animals. What, then, causes some to ascribe a different meaning to it at Colossians 1:15? Is it Bible usage or is it a belief to which they already hold and for which they seek proof? (3) Does Colossians 1:16, 17 (RS) exclude Jesus from having been created, when it says “in him all things were created . . . all things were created through him and for him”? The Greek word here rendered “all things” is pan′ta, an inflected form of pas. At Luke 13:2, RS renders this “all . . . other”; JB reads “any other”; NE says “anyone else.” (See also Luke 21:29 in NE and Philippians 2:21 in JB.) In harmony with everything else that the Bible says regarding the Son, NW assigns the same meaning to pan′ta at Colossians 1:16, 17 so that it reads, in part, “by means of him all other things were created . . . All other things have been created through him and for him.” Thus he is shown to be a created being, part of the creation produced by God.
Rev. 1:1; 3:14, RS: “The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him . . . ‘And to the angel of the church in La-odicea write: “The words of the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning [Greek, ar·khe′] of God’s creation.”’” (KJ, Dy, CC, and NW, as well as others, read similarly.) Is that rendering correct? Some take the view that what is meant is that the Son was ‘the beginner of God’s creation,’ that he was its ‘ultimate source.’ But Liddell and Scott’s Greek-English Lexicon lists “beginning” as its first meaning of ar·khe′. (Oxford, 1968, p. 252) The logical conclusion is that the one being quoted at Revelation 3:14 is a creation, the first of God’s creations, that he had a beginning. Compare Proverbs 8:22, where, as many Bible commentators agree, the Son is referred to as wisdom personified. According to RS, NE, and JB.8
Mark 13:32, RS: “Of that day or that hour no ones knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.” (Of course, that would not be the case if Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were coequal, comprising one Godhead. And if, as some suggest, the Son was limited by his human nature from knowing, the question remains, Why did the Holy Spirit not know?)
Matt. 20:20-23, RS: “The mother of the sons of Zebedee . . . said to him [Jesus], ‘Command that these two sons of mine may sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your kingdom.’ But Jesus answered, . . . ‘You will drink my cup, but to sit at my right hand and at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared by my Father.’” (How strange, if, as claimed, Jesus is God! Was Jesus here merely answering according to his “human nature”? If, as Trinitarians say, Jesus was truly “God-man”—both God and man, not one or the other—would it truly be consistent to resort to such an explanation? Does not Matthew 20:23 rather show that the Son is not equal to the Father, that the Father has reserved some prerogatives for himself?)
Matt. 12:31, 32, RS: “Every sin and blasphemy will be forgiven men, but the blasphemy against the Spirit will not be forgiven. And whoever says a word against the Son of man will be forgiven; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come.” (If the Holy Spirit were a person and were God, this text would flatly contradict the Trinity doctrine, because it would mean that in some way the Holy Spirit was greater than the Son. Instead, what Jesus said shows that the Father, to whom the “Spirit” belonged, is greater than Jesus, the Son of man.)
John 14:28, RS: “[Jesus said:] If you loved me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I.”
Jesus said in prayer: “Father, . . . this is eternal life, that they know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent.” (John 17:1-3, RS; (Most translations here use the expression “the only true God” with reference to the Father. NE reads “who alone art truly God.” He cannot be “the only true God,” the one “who alone [is] truly God,” if there are two others who are God to the same degree as he is, can he? Any others referred to as “gods” must be either false or merely a reflection of the true God.)
1 Cor. 8:5, 6, RS: “Although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many ‘gods’ and many ‘lords’—yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” (This presents the Father as the “one God” of Christians and as being in a class distinct from Jesus Christ.)
1 Pet. 1:3, RS: “Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ!” (Repeatedly, even following Jesus’ ascension to heaven, the Scriptures refer to the Father as “the God” of Jesus Christ. At John 20:17, following Jesus’ resurrection, he himself spoke of the Father as “my God.” Later, when in heaven, as recorded at Revelation 3:12, he again used the same expression. But never in the Bible is the Father reported to refer to the Son as “my God,” nor does either the Father or the Son refer to the holy spirit as “my God".

In conclusion: the Jesus I follow, is not imaginary.He is very much real to me and millions of others who think like me.millions of us have dedicated our lives to live by bible principles and to obey Jesus as our Lord and savior and master.We view Jesus as the second most powerful person in the whole universe.So, you see, he is not imaginary to me. He is very real to me indeed.
If you read the s scriptures that I have provided and meditate on them, you will come to the same conclusion.

In the spirit of Christ...
Neighborly  Love .
commented by (100 points)
Great explanation pjrizzo, but to
Fig Tree, it sounds like you've been following the teachings of the Jehovah's Witnesses'  doctrine , which, btw is a non Christian cult. I leave you with John 1. " In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made through him. Without him was not anything made that has been made.
Jhn 1:1‭-‬3 WEB
Now ask yourself this question, who was the Word? May God bless.
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